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Posted by Roger Abell [MVP] on August 26, 2006, 12:44 pm
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wondering why you do not set a reference to the IE shadoc and
use it's methods and then access the result using the dom.
> Okay, I will. Thank you for your answer.
> What I'm trying to do is to make a XmlHttp request with the token set as
> the IE sets when in local network. The reason is simple, I do that from
> VBA and the client has requested to have single-sign-on, so that he
> doesn't have to provide his credentials in the application. As you can see
> this is not my idea, but I have to try my best to ..try it.
> Thanks for answer,
> Jan
>
>>I doubt that your issues is gettig the token but in marshalling it in way
>> that the remote wants. Many of us are probably sitting back thinking
>> "what the . . . " is this app design actually trying to do? Most often
>> if communicating within a domain context where the token would be
>> of any use (i.e. would be understood) one does not need to manipulate
>> them to have an authenticated remote connection as the subsystems will
>> handle that for you (unless perhaps you have written a service that is at
>> the other end and that is not leveraging what Windows provides)
>>
>> I would suggest that you post into one of the MSDN forums.
>>
>>
>>> Nobody knows the API to get the current user token?
>>>
>>>
>>>> Hi,
>>>> in VisualBasic I use MSXML to send HTTP request. I know that in
>>>> intranet, the IE sends user token in the request header to enable
>>>> single-sign-on. I would like to get this token from my app and send it
>>>> with my request for the same reason. How can I get the correct token
>>>> and format it accordingly?
>>>>
>>>> Thank you,
>>>> Jan
>>>
>>>
>>
>>
>
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